Another thread on french grips...

[angriff]

This may sound extremely dumb but I need to clarify this...

Suppose Fencer A is using a pistol while Fencer B is holding a french grip epee by the pommel. Fencer A angulates to hit Fencer B under the wrist, but misses and ends up hitting the exposed grip instead (because of Fencer B's pommelling).

So would that still count as a hit to Fencer A, or can Fencer B argue against it?

[damianip]

Touch for A.

No argument, same as a hand touch.

Paolo

[DHCJr]

Check out rule T66. The touch should be anulled. Saying that, how do you prove it. That is a judgement call. If the referee believes that the touch was against the hand, he can't be overruled. The best thing to do is count it as a learning experience and angle the weapon better.

[damianip]

Originally posted by DHCJr
Check out rule T66. The touch should be anulled. Saying that, how do you prove it. That is a judgement call. If the referee believes that the touch was against the hand, he can't be overruled. The best thing to do is count it as a learning experience and angle the weapon better.

Donald,

While I agree that the letter of the rule allows for the annulment, I have never seen this done, and I personally have had several occasions where I was clearly hit on the grip. The rationale applied was, for all practical purposes, some "piece of my hand" must have been involved.

As a fencer who posts, I am more than willing to give a touch to an opponent who can manage such a feat.

Paolo